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Vascular Malformations 01

Topic: Behavior

Created on Friday, February 23 2007 by

Last modified on Friday, February 23 2007.

Which of the following is most accurate regarding vascular malformations?

 
        A) Arteriovenous malformations are associated with a 2/3 risk of clinically significant hemorrhage.
 
        B) Capillary telangiectases have an initial presentation of focal epilepsy in 1/3 of cases.
 
        C) Cavernous angiomas are associated with a 2/3 risk of clinically significant hemorrhage.
 
        D) Venous angiomas consist of dilated capillaries separated by normal brain tissue.
 
        E) Capillary telangiectases have an initial presentation of cerebral hemorrhage in 50% of cases.
 

 


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This question was created on February 23, 2007 by .
This question was last modified on February 23, 2007.

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS




A) arteriovenous malformations are associated with a 2/3 risk of clinically significant hemorrhage.

This answer is correct.


The statement, "arteriovenous malformations are associated with a 2/3 risk of clinically significant hemorrhage." is true.
arteriovenous malformations are associated with a 2/3 risk of clinically significant hemorrhage, are associated with a 2%-4% annual risk of acute hemorrhage, account for 1.5%-4% of all brain masses, have an initial presentation of cerebral hemorrhage in 50% of cases, and is a mass of thick-walled blood vessels of varying caliber.  (See References)

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B) capillary telangiectases have an initial presentation of focal epilepsy in 1/3 of cases.

This answer is incorrect.


The statement, "capillary telangiectases have an initial presentation of focal epilepsy in 1/3 of cases." is false.
capillary telangiectases rarely become symptomatic, consist of dilated capillaries separated by normal brain tissue, and are usually incidental findings.  (See References)

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C) cavernous angiomas are associated with a 2/3 risk of clinically significant hemorrhage.

This answer is incorrect.


The statement, "cavernous angiomas are associated with a 2/3 risk of clinically significant hemorrhage." is false.
cavernous angiomas have an initial presentation of focal epilepsy in 1/3 of cases, are abnormal collections of thin-walled vessels without intervening brain tissue, and are associated with a 1% annual risk of acute hemorrhage.  (See References)

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D) venous angiomas consist of dilated capillaries separated by normal brain tissue.

This answer is incorrect.


The statement, "venous angiomas consist of dilated capillaries separated by normal brain tissue." is false.
venous angiomas rarely become symptomatic, are similar to varicose veins, and are dilated veins of the superficial or subcortical vasculature.  (See References)

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E) capillary telangiectases have an initial presentation of cerebral hemorrhage in 50% of cases.

This answer is incorrect.


The statement, "capillary telangiectases have an initial presentation of cerebral hemorrhage in 50% of cases." is false.
capillary telangiectases rarely become symptomatic, consist of dilated capillaries separated by normal brain tissue, and are usually incidental findings.  (See References)

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References:

1. Prayson, R.A., and Goldblum, J.R. (Eds.) (2005). Neuropathology. Elsevier, Philadelphia.
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Vascular Malformations 01
Question ID: 02230701
Question written by . (C) FrontalCortex.com 2006-2009, all rights reserved. Created: 02/23/2007
Modified: 02/23/2007
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